I am moving abroad, to another country from November. The company is paying the rent of the apartment I’ll be staying in.
But since I’ll be moving to another country from 1st of november, it will take 1 month, until december, for me to get my first paycheck.
Is it ok for me to ask them to pay part, 30-40% of my salary in advance, at my arrival – so I don’t have to spend my savings on groceries and other expenses, during the first month I’m there?
If it is a normal practice, how should I word this? Please help
5 comments
So they are paying your rent and you’re knowingly moving with zero cash to your name?
This is poor planning.
This is not a normal practice.
The company is already paying you more by covering your rent, so asking for an advance seems overreaching on your part.
This **should** come out of your personal savings.
It’s normal to receive some form of relocation allowance to cover initial expenses incurred – you should ask about that. I have worked internationally for over a decade and would suggest that it’s reasonable to expect something.
If you have savings there is no difference between using savings and then replenishing it when you get paid, vs getting paid early. It’s all the same amount of money at the end. This is why you have savings
Ask for a relocation allowance.