So a quick question here. I’m (M32) having this fwb (F23) and currently she’s taking the pill and we’re using condoms on top of that. A kid is obviously out of the question, we’re not even dating.
The elephant in the room is we both like it better without condoms. She would be fine with trusting the pill, I’m however a very paranoid person by nature.
So my idea was to raw dog it on her natural unfertile days and keep using condoms when she normally, without the pill, would be fertile. I know fertility awareness in and of itself is very unreliable, but I feel that combined with the pill this would be OK for me.
The actual question here: does it even work this way when a woman takes a hormonal contraception? If the pill fails, does it just mean she ovulated during her normal time despite the pill? Didn’t really find much about that.
2 comments
On the pill she is no longer ovulating, she no longer has fertile windows. Esp if she had been on them for a long time.
How do you even calculate her fertile days? 28 day cycles from her last period? Or what? If “the pill fails” her cycle would start after that. Depending on the type of pill, she would ovulate 2 weeks after her last pill + a few days. Fertility awareness is worth even less combined with the pill, so you either take the tiny risk of it failing or you keep using condoms every time.
Ask her for the particular name of her pills and then do some research on it.
What you really want to see is a 19-nor analogue with estradiol. This is basically HRT for women in a pill and the 19-nor in particular is extremely good at preventing pregnancy.