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11 comments
If I heard that statement, I’d think that person wasn’t very informed about history, anthropology, or sociology as that’s demonstrably untrue. Slavery has existed at different times and in different forms directed at different types of humans throughout history, but claiming that women have been enslaved for 99% of history is just inaccurate.
I’d assume that the person who says this is not a safe person to be with.
Pretty sure that is not accurate, we don’t have accurate knowledge of all of all the cultures and history or all humans. They must not speaking literally I guess. I won’t debate with them or entertain that, I’ll probably leave the conversation.
Unless it is clearly meant as a hyperbole I would question the general knowledge of human history of the person saying this.
I would think that they don’t know what they’re talking about or that they just want to trigger people. Either way I would stay away from them.
You mean somebody *literally* saying women have been slaves to men? I’d think that’s an extremely reductionist way of describing the dynamic between men and women. Surely women’s history — and present in many places — is brutal, but simplifying it to those sorts of terms isn’t helpful.
I think that while women have not had equality in most societies throughout history, calling us slaves is inaccurate.
Ask them how exactly they passed 8th grade history
That’s hyperbole. Being treated as subordinate and less than and being denied rights is bad, but not equivalent to slavery.
I’d say that’s a wildly inaccurate statement, and I would be concerned about the intelligence and mindset of anyone who believed this.
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